Roman
and Early Christian Contributions
The
major contribution of ancient Rome:
Civil
Law:
The
Roman law of property and contract:
Natural
law:
The
Corporation:
From
the time of the fall of Rome to the end of the eighteenth century—most writers
in economics were lawyers or businessmen of some kind.
Early
Christian thought gave us another view®
Worldly
Possessions: Not good - would not need
them in God's kingdom so shouldn't put a lot of value on them.
The
“right” use of material gifts was important.
Morality
vs. Economics: More interested in the morality of individual behavior - not the how
and why of economics.
Medieval
Economic Thought
Feudalism
was the dominant form of economic organization in the middle ages.
King
was the owner of everything—
“Ownership”
meant “right to use”…
Feudal
property became the seat of political power in the middle ages.
So
the feudal lords exercised government functions in their territories.
Mostly
agricultural—small scale.
Serfs:
The
goal was self-sufficiency—
The
principal of organization was status, not contract.
Scholastics
Medieval
economics was a product of the clergy, particularly a group of writers known
as the Scholastics. (teachers,
professors, “schoolmen”).
Aristotle’s
Influence:
—his
logic and reasoning—was the highest ranked non-biblical source for the
Scholastics.
The
most famous names being
St. Thomas Aquinas, Albertus Magnus, Duns Scoutus in the 13th
century, Nicolas Oresme in the 14th century, and in early modern
times the Spanish Jesuit Luis Molina.
(many of the ideas below can be attributed to St. Thomas Aquinas).
Nature
of Things:
But
they also:
Inquired into “the nature of things”—which basically is not an
ethical problem.
Divine
law became natural law.
General
Interest and Welfare Economics:
Usually what was declared as "just" was whatever serves the general interest
- in this sense Scholastic economics became an early form of welfare
economics:
On
Value
Their contributions:
Equilibrium: They
brought together Aristotle's primitive notion of value with a concept of
equilibrium - although a very weak concept.
Two
divergent tracks were set:
(1)
(2)
Notion
that the value in exchange must comply with cost of productions…some argue a
precursor to Karl Marx. However, he did talk about utility as a predominant element.
Argued
that there is a “natural” order (value) and an “economic” order (value)
—in which things are valued differently.
Principle
of Plentide—
In
determining the intrinsic value of a good.
All goods were assigned to a class—which also determined their value and
had nothing to do with costs.
So
we cannot say that the Scholastics were necessarily the precursors to the labor
theory of value.
In
the economic order goods are measured in relation to labor …actually
labor and expenses.
Paradox
of Value: We will see that this is
typical of the Scholastics and actually posed a problem for them -- the
so-called and later termed "paradox of value":
For
example, when St. Thomas is faced with the fact that a pearl fetched a high
price and a mouse no price, although the “class” of the mouse had been
created after that of the pearl and appeared to be entitled to a higher rank in
the natural scale of valuation—he referred to St. Augustine and replied that
the
“principle
of salable things was not reckoned in accordance with the rank of nature…but
in accordance with the extent to which the things are useful to man.”
If
the market price does not cover costs of production, production will eventually
cease.
Why is this important (to mainstream economics today)?
(1)
suggested that price could be treated as an equilibrium value (price = costs)
(2)
set up an economic variable as the regulator of value (costs) - if costs were
not covered than the economic value was not high enough and production would
cease.
The
Doctrine of the Just Price-
Inner
Goodness: Basically a "just price" was one that corresponded to the (bonitas
intrinseca) or inner goodness of the commodities.
Practical
formula: The generally accepted
practical formula for determining the just price was that it should compensate
for the work done by the artisans and his aides and plus expenditures for raw
materials, tools, and the like supplied by other producers.
So again - Costs
of production were thus the essential elements of the prices fixed by feudal
lords, municipalities, and guilds;
What
labor earned or was paid (that costs) was graded according to the social
position and skill of the worker and the nature of the work.
So
what St. Thomas discussed seemed basically to denounce market forces as
antagonistic to justice—since the just price was basically based on cost—not
demand.
Again, the labor theory of value and the Paradox of
value:
However,
St. Thomas realized that changes in S and D might affect the value of the
commodities… therefore the just price was not fixed with mathematical
precision—but depended on estimates.
Therefore:
…if
the price exceeds the quantity of the value of the article, or the article
exceeds the price, the equality will be destroyed.
And therefore, to sell a thing dearer or to buy it cheaper than it is
worth is, in itself, unjust and illicit….The just price of things, however, is
not determined to a precise point but consists of a certain estimate….The
price of an article is changed according to difference in location, time, or
risk to which one is exposed in carrying it from one place to another or in
causing it to be carried. Neither
purchase nor sale according to this principle is unjust (cited in Dempsey,
p.481).
Among
the unlawful practices which were especially condemned and prosecuted were:
(1)
Forestalling –
(2)
Regrating -
(3)
Engrossing -
So
an increase in price was unlawful unless the good had been transformed and its
usefulness increased…usually by human labor.
However—the labor was not compared in terms of different kinds,
etc.—because the emphasis was on how the labor had increased the utility of
the good and enhanced its (bonitas intrinseca) inner-goodness.
St.
Thomas Aquinas from Summa Theologica
Four Questions:
-
Whether
a man may lawfully sell a thing for more than it is worth:
Basically
no, although many did lawfully,
But
he shouldn’t.
“consequently,
to sell dearer or to buy cheaper than a thing is worth is in itself unjust and
unlawful.”
This
question right here presupposes that we can say something about the “worth”
of a good outside of the process of buying or selling…that particular buying
or selling. (worth to another).
Is
this fraud? He answers it is sinful
to practice fraud for the express purpose of selling a thing for more than its
just price – inasmuch as a man deceives his neighbor to his loss.
Is
this the same as “for more than it is worth?”
Can
speak of buying and selling in two ways:
a.
common advantage to both parties
“but
it not out to be more burdensome to one than to the other . . . contract out to
be based on the equality of things.”
b.
accidentally turns out to the advantage of one and to the injury of
the other.
For
example when a man is in great need of something and the other is injured if he
is deprived of it.
In
this case the just price not only takes into account the thing sold, but also
the loss incurred by the seller in parting with it.
So will this justify a higher price?
Thus: can be sold for more than it is worth in itself—but not
more than it is worth to its possessor.
a.
seller deprived: should
be compensated
b.
buyer aided: seller
shouldn’t charge more due to this. But
it is a “matter of honor” for the buyer to pay more.
-
Whether
a sale is rendered unlawful by a defect in the thing sold?
Consider
three kinds of defects:
a.
Substance of the thing sold.
b.
Quantity – measure
c.
Quality
The
seller: if he doesn’t know
about the defect – he is not sinful – but must pay later.
This
is also true with the buyer. If
he buys gold, both thinking brass, the buyer should compensate the seller.
-
Whether
a seller is bound to declare a defect in a thing sold?
If
the defect is obvious, he doesn’t have to point it out – if he makes a
proper deduction from the price.
Doesn’t
have to tell of a coming change, although he would be more virtuous if he did.
-
Whether
in trading it is lawful to sell a thing for more than was paid for it?
This
is sinful!
He
is saying something different here – but if he does this, if he is selling
something for more than he paid for it he must have paid less than it was worth
or be selling for more! This
cannot be done without sin.
Intent is important.
Not everyone who sells for more than he paid is a trader – but only
the one who buys for the express purpose of selling dearer.
Can sell it dearer: Because
he has “improved” the thing, because the price has changed with time and
circumstances, or risk in transporting or having it transported for him.
Usury:
“.
. . to receive usury for money lent is, in itself unjust, since it is a sale of
what does not exist; whereby inequality obviously results, which is contrary to
justice.”
“
. . . the act of lending involves a transfer of ownership.”
Therefore
you cannot ask for the price of something plus a price for its use. They cannot be separated.
Except
in the case of say renting a house:
But
with money – which was invented for effecting exchanges – so the use of
money is the consumption of it – whereby it is expended in making purchases.
So
this is unjust – to receive usury for money . . . because when you lend money,
you are, in effect, transferring ownership since you cannot separate its use
form its consumption.
He
who pays usury does not really do it voluntarily, but under some
compulsion – for he needs the money!
He distinguished between Usury
vs. Interest:
Usury:
payment for use of money in a transaction that resulted in gain.
Interest:
reimbursement for loss or expense – such as the opportunity cost of not
being able to use the capital.
So
risk was not a justification for interest since loans were usually backed by
a lot of property.
Thus,
usury prohibition was not intended to curb the high profits of risk enterprise.
Therefore
with regard to money: the
Scholastic (Thomas) analysis neglected (three interest theories) -
all of which came later:
St. Aquinas on Slavery
for men of outstanding intelligence naturally take
command, while those who are less intelligent but of more
robust physique, seem intended by nature to act as servants;
Thomas Aquinas, Summa Contra Gentiles
Aquinas largely agreed with St. Augustine that slavery was
the result of sin (the good were entitled to use the sinful),
but he also thought that the universe did have a natural
structure that gave some men authority over others.
He justified this by pointing out the hierarchical nature of
heaven, where some angels were superior to others.
Aquinas had a much higher opinion of slaves than Aristotle.
He considered that slaves had some restricted rights.
A son, as such, belongs to his father, and a slave, as
such, belongs to his master; yet each, considered as a man,
is something having separate existence and distinct from
others. Hence in so far as each of them is a man, there is
justice towards them in a way: and for this reason too there
are certain laws regulating the relations of father to his
son, and of a master to his slave; but in so far as each is
something belonging to another, the perfect idea of "right"
or "just" is wanting to them.Summa Theologica
And while it was perfectly acceptable for a master to hit a
slave, it might be better to be merciful
since the child is subject to the power of the parent,
and the slave to the power of his master, a parent can
lawfully strike his child, and a master his slave that
instruction may be enforced by correction...
The command that masters should forbear from
threatening their slaves may be understood in two ways.
First that they should be slow to threaten, and this
pertains to the moderation of correction; secondly, that
they should not always carry out their threats, that is that
they should sometimes by a merciful forgiveness temper the
judgment whereby they threatened punishment.
Summa Theologica
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